נאָך

How about pronoun / adjectival pronoun meaning more?

Commentaires

I would consider that a usage of the adverb, נאָך-1.
It would be useful to have an example of this kind in that entry ...

But if you have a sentence like :

"איך װיל עסן נאָך אוגערקעס"

or

"איך װיל פֿרעגן נאָך אַ פֿראַגע"

or

"עס איז דאָ נאָך עסן"

or even

"עס איז דאָ נאָך"

is that not a pronoun / pronominal adjective rather than an adverb? I don't really think it's modifying the verb in these cases (any more than "more" in English is an adverb in a sentence like "I want more cake"...)

איך װיל נאָך עסן.‏
is just like
איך װיל נאָך בלײַבן.‏
or
עס װערט נאָך בעסער.‏

Just like Hebrew עוד, I think.

If you think of it as a pronoun, you have to wonder why it can't be the subject of a sentence, or the object of a preposition.

I thought about that (the parallel between the two types of sentences) but I truly think it's different (the difference between "I still want to eat" and "I want to eat more [of antecedent]"). To continue the parallel to עוד, indeed עוד can function as a pronoun and not just an adjective in exactly the same way (as an adjective whose modified noun is present as an antecedent and not in the sentence itself -- אני רוצה עוד [עוגה] means "I want more [cake]," not "I still want" -- and, tho I am a little less clear on this piece re: the Yiddish side of things, I think that in Hebrew as in Yiddish, it would be incorrect to use יותר there just as in Yiddish it would be incorrect to use מער (?)).

To your specific points, firstly, I think it can indeed be the object of a preposition, e.g.:

איך װאַרט אױף נאָך.

(Obviously the audience of that sentence would have to know enough context to know נאָך what, but that's true of any pronoun with an antecedent in a previous sentence.)

As far as subject of a sentence, similarly, I think it is possible to say something like "נאָך זענען געקומען אין דער פֿרי" -- again, the listener has to know what the antecedent is, but once again I don't think that's an issue.

It's possible that I've been using the word wrong, but otherwise I think that these cases do demonstrate that it's something other than an adverb. I do find attestations of both these uses in the most easily accessible corpora, for what they're worth (aka google + forverts):

http://www.ivelt.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=4080

http://yiddish.forward.com/articles/179944/how-is-this-gaza-conflict-dif...

I know it's unpopular, but I went over to the German dictionary Duden to see how it categorizes the word. In German, it can be used in 3 different ways: a) conjunction, b) particle, and c) adverb.

a) The conjunction does not work in Yiddish, since in German "weder...noch" means "neither...nor" (in Yiddish: ניט...ניט).

b) As a particle, Duden defines this term to mean essentially filler words like doch (also in Yiddish). In this way, this is a perfect way to describe the untranslatability of noch to mean "already." Even though Jews like to speak Yinglish sprinkled with "already," it's not English.
איך װאַרט אױף נאָך.

c) adverb. This is as you two are discussing. A lot of your sentences, Duden defines those usages as adverbs
איך װיל עסן נאָך אוגערקעס
ich habe noch zwei Euro